WhiteLion wrote...
Wait a second. By saying that a premise is valid, you are making a claim. If another person rejects that claim, the burden of proof is on you to demonstrate why your premise is valid. You say in your other thread that the burden of proof is always on one who is making a claim, so it would be on you. If the other person has an alternative premise, yes they would need to demonstrate why their premise should be considered valid, but according to what you say in your other thread, the default position would be to accept neither claim and thus accept neither premise as valid.
You don't just get to throw out any premises you like and put the burden of proof on your opponents to prove you wrong.
Until I present my proof, and if they cannot refute it logically, yet still reject the proof given, then they are the ones being illogical. Especially since they're the ones making the claim that my proof is insufficient. This matches logic perfectly.
Except that it often isn't. No one uses an exclusively mathematics based approach in religious debates, or it at least is rarely seen.
I would disagree, as MANY religious debates include logical mathematical based systems to argue. Just look at...ANY William Lane Craig debate. Besides, even if it WAS rarely seen, it doesn't matter, because they STILL count as proofs, just like mathematical forumlae count as proofs.
This is actually an illogical argument in favor of logic. Now it isn't a bad argument persay, but is a usefulness/convenience argument rather than a logical argument. However, as you point out, logic can't prove itself. It requires axioms that are accepted, for whatever reason(common sense is a common reason). Thus, the creation and use of logic derives from some kind of thought other than logical thought. Given how useful logic is, the nonlogical thought that created it has demonstrated itself to produce at least one useful product.[quote]
A couple points:
1. In epistomology, which regularly employs logical proofs to show why one is justified in believing they have a certain level of concrete knowledge, prcticality and pragmaticist approaches ARE accepted as evidences towards the truth claim being made. So yes, an argument about 'usefulness' is indeed fully logical'.
2. The axioms are usually agreed upon because of centuries of logical and philosophical debate BEFOREHAND. The idea that the thought process to make up axioms that help us to construct modern logical arguments and foorms of logic is by some ecessity 'nonlogical' is a fallacy in and of itself. Though, I suppose your next point would be, "But then how did we start?! We had to have made some illogical presumptions in order to start coming up with axiomatic knowledge." Well, no, because you're getting into the realm of epistomology, which as I've said before, acknowledges the usefulness of a premise as being evidence that the premise is valid and sound. It's still logical thinking.
[quote]That's a misinterpretation of my argument. A premise needs to have been PROVED to be considered valid and sound.
Well, just sound, not valid. A premise can be unsound, yet still structurally valid. Minor point, but meh.
However, a premise needs to be agreed upon to be useful for persuasion in a debate. A sound logical argument won't be convincing to someone who disagrees with the premises, regardless of whether they are valid or not. You would first need to demonstrate convincingly to that person why they should accept the premises you are using or your argument will be lost on them.
Ok, maybe I did misinterpret your argument, still though, this new wording isn't really much better in my opinion. All you're essentially saying is, "In order to convince someone, they have to be convinced by you." And as I've said before, if I've demonstrated the premise, and the person I'm trying to persuade employs logical fallacies or illogical argumentation, that's THEIR problem, not mine.
This is ridiculous. Premise 1 is to start, ill defined. Second, the system of logic and its axioms were defined through nonlogical means(you basically admit this earlier in your post). Based on our observations of the world, our common sense, etc, we decided to create a system that we thought would be useful. The system is useful, but the premise you suggest here is not logically sound. You can't logically prove that it should be accepted, outside of supporting it with further unsubstantiated/axiomatic claims.
A rock is a rock, a rock is not not a rock. This is a claim that is true, and logicaly verifiable. Logic employs methods to observe this to be true.
1. Rock = A
2. A=A
3. A=/=(=/=) A
4. It then follows from the premises that A=A and A will not, and does not ever = =/=A.
There's my logical proof for the first premise. Point to a claim you deny, and explain why it's insufficient, or accept it. Or, you can point to where it's structurally invalid, and I would have to tweak it.
Premise 2 is clearly false because I am arguing with you. Maybe you meant to state it in some other way.
By observations I meant the inarguable ones like A=A and A=/=(=/=)A
The conclusion is ill defined. How accurate?
It's as defined as I need it to be for my purposes. Accurate. Logical observations are accurate. Also, because of how logic works, you don't have to agree or disagree with the conclusion, the only thing that matters is that the conclusion logically follows from the premises.
Maybe you find Descartes argument convincing, but philosophy continues to address this question and will do so forever in all probability. Descartes's argument has been criticized by numerous philosophers. You can go read about it if you are interested. Kierkegaard's critique might be up your alley.
I can't really argue the point until I've read up more on the arguments against the Cogito. So I'll concede the point here until I become better read on the subject.
I have in fact repeatedly done this. So have you, by making use of illogical arguments to advance your case.
Well, I will say that now you've made the arguments of why you feel illogical arguments are good, but I have employed logic thoroughly throughout the entirety of my responses, intentionally for this very reason. Again, I feel it necessarily to reiterate, pragmaticism IS evidence towards the validity and soundness of a premise in logic.